general discussion of the timing of intent

[ruminator]

We have come a long way in my last thread, and this is the last piece of the puzzle. I created a new thread because it is a different issue, it is very specific, and I want to keep this streamlined.

The specific issue to be discussed in this thread is the timing of intent. Please keep responses related to timing only.

This is the barebones structure of using someone:

1. X induces Y to act
2. Y acts
3. X derives benefit from Y's act
4. X, for selfish reasons, uses the benefit to his advantage and/or Y's detriment

We decided, in the last thread, that the key point that makes this situation "using" is intent.

Generally, the intent (the selfish motivation) exists at the time of step 1. This is clearly "using".

Now, is the question this thread attempts to answer:

Is it "using" if the selfish motivation developed at step 3?

I think in order to answer this question, a relevant consideration would be the Kantian definition of using someone as a means to an end.